1. Internet use has both a practical (necessities) and an entertainment (luxuries) value. As the NTIA study indicates, not all populations use/have access to the Internet. When is this an injustice and when is this a fact of life? Some people are always going to have more luxuries than others...
2. Schools and public libraries prove to be places to ameliorate discrepancies in computer and Internet access. Provided they are moderately well-funded, is this enough to equalize access? Does the location of the access matter when determining equality?
3. Even though people in typically "technologically disadvantaged" groups show increasing rates of Internet and computer use, their increased use does not reflect the type of the information they seek. Do they use the Internet to their advantage, such as accessing job listings, or are they ebay addicts? If they have Internet access, is the Digital Divide necessarily narrowed?